How infant baptism came to be


The practice of infant baptism is not in the Bible. The theology supporting it might be but not the practice itself. By that I mean there is no description, mention or clear evidence of infants being baptised in the pages of the New Testament1.

In fact there are no mentions of infant baptism for at least 150 years after the resurrection of Christ and the first really clear mention of it (by someone who opposed the practice) was Tertullian around 200 AD2.

The great church historian Henry Chadwick thought that even at the time of Augustine in 387AD that, ‘it was still rather unusual for infants to be baptised.’

Hendrick Stander and Johannes Louw offer a impressive and comprehensive study of the early church literature3, tomb inscriptions and artwork in their book Baptism in the Early Church and clearly demonstrate that it wasn’t until sometime into the 4th century that infant baptism became the standard. They conclude,

Finally it needs to be remarked that the contention often found in modern literature, viz that adult baptism in the early church entailed a missionary situation, cannot be substantiated by the relevant patristic literature, since the transition from adult baptism to infant baptism occurred at a time when Christianity was already a widespread phenomenon in the ancient church. Therefore, it is also unsound to scrutinize the New Testament writings for allusions to infant baptism, since the latter involved a historical development (bold added)

Baptism in the Early Church, Stander & Louw, p186

Given that the majority of the world’s Christians practice infant baptism in one form or other (and with a wide variety of theologies to support the practice) it’s worth asking, how did that happen? In other words, what explains the historical development?

Francesco Arduini has a suggestion, and I think it’s a compelling one. Arduini has built on his 2021 article for Biblical Archaeology Society (which I wrote about here) and turned it into The Infant Baptism: The Case for a Pandemic Origin. Arduini covers similar ground to Stander & Louw by reviewing the early church literature that mentions baptism between 100-165AD and comes to the same conclusion, namely that infant baptism is not mentioned and all the references to baptism refer to believer’s baptism. Arduini then moves forward to 180-200AD and notes that by the time Tertullian mentions it, it has become something of an established if not yet the dominant practice.

Then Arduini does something, which I’m not aware of anyone else doing before and asks, what was it that happened in the Roman Empire between 165 & 180AD that might account for the development of infant baptism? The answer is: The Antonine Plague.

Arduini notes in his postscript how during the Covid pandemic church practice changed rapidly when churches around the western world were forced to close. Sunday & Easter services went online, new habits & meeting practices were developed. And in response to these changes it sent pastors, bishops and theologians scrambling for biblical and theology justification of these new ways of taking communion and discussing the meaning of community, presence, worship, pastoral support and so on. We can clearly see how the church changed as a result, even if those changes may have proved temporary.

Well by comparison the Antonine Plague was far more devastating than Covid. It was either smallpox or measles or possibly both and estimates range from 2% to 33% affected and so deaths anywhere between 1.5 million to 25 million, with people often settling for something in the middle around 7-10 million deaths. This out of a population of 75 million meant that around 10% of the population died. Covid is only now reaching that lower figure out of a population one hundred times larger. The plague lasted, in waves, for about 15 years and decimated the Roman army and considerably weakened the Empire for a number of years and may even have taken the life of one if not two emperors, including Marcus Aurelius.

Given the absolute devastation that the plague wreaked across the Roman Empire is it any surprise that Christians would have pressed and pushed their infants to be baptised at birth, not because of any link with circumcision but because they might die and they wanted them to go to heaven? Only later did the churches thinkers go scrambling for theological backup begin to land on connections such as circumcision, and then much, much later, covenant.

Arduini’s short book, translated from Italian, is a straightforward read, but it is worthy of consideration because the argument is both simple yet extremely effective. I think it would have been worthwhile spending time describing the scale and impact of the Plague so the reader appreciates the urgency and power of it, and bringing the postscript reflection on the Covid pandemic into the body of the book and expanding on it so the reader can how this change happens. Yet the core argument remains strong: there was no mention of infant baptism for 150 years, then twenty years later there appear mentions of infant baptism, and so what happened in the middle? A deadly plague. In fact I think it should force proponents of infant baptism to give a better historical account of the evidence if they can.

  1. Please don’t mention the household baptisms, they don’t actually help your cause []
  2. I’m with Kurt Aland that Irenaeus is not talking about infant baptism in his Against Heresies []
  3. Which as an aside hardly ever mention the covenant []

Discover more from The Simple Pastor

Enjoyed this? Subscribe to The Simple Pastor to get the latest posts sent to your email.

15 responses

  1. Paul Goodfellow avatar
    Paul Goodfellow

    Hi Phil,

    I just came across your website, and have been enjoying a number of your posts on Baptism. Could you point me to Kurt Aland discussion of Irenaeus and “Against Heresies”?

    Also I thought I saw a remark in one of your articles that we know of a number of cases where children of early church members were not baptized as infants but later in life as believers. Is that so or was I dreaming? I know that is true of Augustine. Are there other cases?

    1. HI Paul, Happy New Year & thanks for the comment.

      See Kurt Aland, ‘Did the early church baptize infants?’ (2004) p59. I got my source from Francesco Arduini ‘The Infant Baptism’ p.64. He cites Aland saying, “It does not seem apparent to me that Irenaeus has baptism in view here, and certainly there is no thought of infant baptism; he is concerned solely with the fact that Jesus sanctified all humanity in that he was made like all, lived through all ages of life & was an example to all…”

      As to the second question: that was from this post and comes from Anglican historian Henry Chadwick who reckons that infant baptism was still not the standard even by Augustine’s time.

      Hope that helps

    2. Augustine
      “What the universal Church holds, not as instituted [invented] by councils but as something always held, is most correctly believed to have been handed down by apostolic authority. Since others respond for children, so that the celebration of the sacrament may be complete for them, it is certainly availing to them for their consecration, because they themselves are not able to respond” (On Baptism, Against the Donatists 4:24:31 [A.D. 400]).

      “The custom of Mother Church in baptizing infants is certainly not to be scorned, nor is it to be regarded in any way as superfluous, nor is it to be believed that its tradition is anything except apostolic” (The Literal Interpretation of Genesis 10:23:39 [A.D. 408]).

      “Cyprian was not issuing a new decree but was keeping to the most solid belief of the Church in order to correct some who thought that infants ought not be baptized before the eighth day after their birth. . . . He agreed with certain of his fellow bishops that a child is able to be duly baptized as soon as he is born” (Letters 166:8:23 [A.D. 412]).

      “By this grace baptized infants too are ingrafted into his [Christ’s] body, infants who certainly are not yet able to imitate anyone. Christ, in whom all are made alive . . . gives also the most hidden grace of his Spirit to believers, grace which he secretly infuses even into infants. . . . If anyone wonders why children born of the baptized should themselves be baptized, let him attend briefly to this. . . . The sacrament of baptism is most assuredly the sacrament of regeneration” (Forgiveness and the Just Deserts of Sin, and the Baptism of Infants 1:9:10; 1:24:34; 2:27:43 [A.D. 412])

      Nice try.

      1. Thanks, John, for the comment.

        It might be worth reflecting on the fact that a) Augustine is writing over 200 years after the events referred to in this post. b) As Henry Chadwick pointed out infant baptism wasn’t universal even in Augustine’s time, hence his need to try to justify and defend the practice. c) Augustine was aware that in the time of Cyprian the practice wasn’t universally agreed upon which is why Cyprian tried to defend the practice. And d) that according to your last quote Augustine believed it to be regenerative which is still what Catholics believe but not those who hold to Sole Fides.

        So none of those quotes prove that the early church unanimously and unequivocally practised infant baptism only that by 400AD they had begun to argue so. As someone said, ‘nice try’.

  2. Andrew avatar

    What is the definition of household in the Old Testament and the New Testament

    1. Hi Andrew, I would say it is all those (family, servants & their families) who live under the rule and protection of the head of the family. But there could be differing economies & freedoms. Lot for example was not bound to Abraham but free to go with his household a separate way.

  3. What is the main argument put forward by Francesco Arduini regarding the relationship between the Antonine plague and the development of the practice of infant baptism?

    Regard IT Telkom

    1. Quite simple really, infants and parents dying in their millions. To ensure that the child in a time of plague would be saved they baptised them. The societal pressure of a devastating plague pushed for innovation in baptismal practices to adjust to a frightening situation.

  4. Neal Warren Stafford avatar
    Neal Warren Stafford

    A historical plague is an extra Biblical argument and is therefore suspect. Are we going to pitch sola Scriptura also?

    Infant baptism is established on at least two passages in the NT. In establishing our case, we only go to passages of Scripture which 1) teaches baptism and 2) specifically allows for children to be baptized.

    THE GREAT COMMISSION: “you make disciples of all nations.” This divine commission is to “baptize the nations”—there never was a nation without infants. Jesus neither instituted adult nor infant baptism just simply baptism–baptism for all. All Human souls are intended for baptism. Christians are authorized to baptize all who compose a nation, men, women and children & infants. This is Bible speak which is quite distinct from modern American Evangelical speak.

    Acts 2:39 “This promise is for you and your children.” Here we have two categories of individuals who are to be baptized. Adults who have the ability to repent and their children who can’t. American Evangelicals ignore this passage of Scripture. On the basis of this passage of Scripture, household baptisms are established. Simple.

    1. Thanks for your comment. I would argue you’ve misinterpreted both passages you mention. I also don’t speak American Evangelical as I’m British living in Sweden 🙂
      1. Your description of the call to the nations is strange to my ears. First you added the “baptize the nations” which is not what the text says. It says make disciples of all nations and here you could quite easily say that from every nation, tribe and tongue we seek to make disciples. By no means is it necessary to say we must baptize everyone in a nation regardless of their response to the gospel.
      2. The phrase ‘promise is for you and for your children’ is meant to convey that it is generational. This generation, and the next one, and the next one and so on. It is not a promise only for the hearers but for their descendants. It does not remove the basis of repentance and faith to which they baptized people on that, and subsequent days. To apply it as you have done to adults and children is to misunderstand the point Peter is making.

      Lastly, as there are no examples of infant baptism either in scripture nor in the first two hundred years of the church then a historical plague is not an extra-biblical argument for something biblical but an extra-biblical argument explaining something extra-biblical, in this case what prompted the historical and rapid upsurge of infant baptism. Not, the passages you say, but instead the terrible wave of death that swept the Roman Empire.

      1. Neal Warren Stafford avatar
        Neal Warren Stafford

        “The phrase ‘promise is for you and for your children’ is meant to convey that it is generational.” This is fairly typical Credobaptist hermeneutics….The Bible says this but it really means that… I see it all the time.

        We make a distinction between τέκνοις (children in Acts 2:39) and for descendants Σπέρμα (sperma). Σπέρμα is used by Luke in Luke 1:55, 20: 28, Acts 7:5, 7:6, 13:3. Luke could have used Σπέρμα or as a substitute for τοῖς τέκνοις but didn’t.

        Proper hermenuetics at least demands what the term τέκνοις (children) meant by the original speakers and what the original audience would have inferred by it. Peter was addressing the hearers as the Jewish people as a whole. Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom you have crucified, both Lord and Christ. (Acts 2:32) We can clearly see that he is addressing them as covenant community and not as individuals, even though the people listening to Peter didn’t have a personal hand in crucifying Jesus yet Peter does say that “you” as a covenant community crucified him.

        We see the word τέκνοις (children) accompanied by ὑμῶν. Ὑμῶν, meaning your, occurs in the genitive (a possessive), 2nd person plural. This tells us that Peter is speaking of the children of those he is speaking to, that is, the children of the crowd. The text itself communicates a literal idea, that the promise found in Baptism is granted to the crowd and their families.

        So how would this Jewish covenant community have understood the term τέκνοις (children) Peter was preaching about? The Jews, who had been initiating their children via circumcision into the visible covenant community for 2,000 years, should be convinced by Peter’s preaching they must no longer do so, if baptism was not for their children. Peter gives no admonition to bar children from baptism. It would have intuitive for Peter’s listeners to understand τέκνοις to mean their children would be included rather than EXCLUDED from baptism.

        Denying Acts 2:39 refers to children is just the typical of credobaptist hermeneutics in order to EXPLAIN AWAY baptism.

        1. τέκνοις has a wide semantic range that can mean anything from ‘Children of Israel’ meaning all children, to of course actual children, to inhabitants of a city, to descendants. To use your own argument about word choice if Peter had meant to specify infants he had a better word even than τέκνοις. He could have used παιδίον or νήπιος or even βρέφος.

          As a credobaptist I certainly don’t need to explain away baptism nor even the baptism of children but specifically of infants. For which there is no stated example, no clear instruction and no historical evidence that it was practised until around 200 years later.

          But I think more challenging to the case that baptism replaces circumcision for the covenant community is it seems that Jewish believers continued to circumcise their children (not even sons thanks again to τέκνοις) and Paul even circumcises Timothy. The sign of the covenant community that Peter was talking was not necessarily or entirely done away with. Why? Because baptism was a different sign than entrance into the covenant community but one which signified washing, cleansing, rebirth and was open to all believers regardless of ethnic background.

          Anyway, perhaps it is wiser to agree to disagree. As is often the case when it comes to baptism.

  5. Neal Warren Stafford avatar
    Neal Warren Stafford

    Circumcision of the OT do not share the incarnation and atonement the way the Lord’s Supper and baptism do. I find the Flood and the Exodus prefigure Baptism more than circumcision.

    Still, Paul’s comparison of Baptism to circumcision centers on the rejection of sin and inclusion in Christ. Baptism removes sin, as circumcision removes the flesh of the body and incorporates the baptized into Christ’s death and resurrection as circumcision incorporated it recipients into the saving community of Israel.

    God’s blessing on your ministry. I am finished here.

  6. Cristian fehet avatar
    Cristian fehet

    Thank you for the post. I find it informative, honest and simple to understand. The arguments about nations, households or promise of the Holly Spirit for children is a clear dishonest exageration. Acts 8 we see a question bein raised what can withold me from being baptised…. if you believe with all your heart you may…. same goes for romams 10 10 and all scripture… an infant believes not and so does a young child which even in simple human society common understanding cannot be held accountable…he is not conscious so he cannot testify Jesus as Lord. What surprises me in this whole ,,christian,, theology of saving infants is omitting jesus saying that if we ressemble not little children we will not inherit the kingdom…children are already such. On top of this we have 1 corinthians 7 14 which states even more clearer that children of saints are saints…the only reason i see christians omitted this and befelled the wicked infant baptism heresy is them not knowing the bible.

  7. Natalie avatar

    Christian Fehet, I agree it is simply misinterpretation of the Bible and of God’s character. By that I mean people made the decision to baptize through fear that their children would not go to heaven. This was primarily fueled by fear from the terrible plagues which were around at the time.
    It is clear God’s heart is for children, his grace is able to cover those that are too young to understand and accept His offer of salvation.
    This is why none of my children are christened, I feel it is tradition based on fear and is not taught in the Bible.

Leave a Reply

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.

Discover more from The Simple Pastor

Subscribe now to keep reading and get access to the full archive.

Continue reading